I'm looking at Hamlet in his soliloquies.  Here are some thought's I've come across:

I.2.129 (Page 15)
-Hamlet uses feminine lines to show the weakness of his mother (Lines 138,140,146,148,149,151)

II.2.487 (Page 60)
-When Hamlet talks about the player, he is out of meter and uses feminine endings (490-95, 533).
    -Also uses feminine lines when talking about his passion (499)
    -Is Hamlet's passion fake, like the player? Does he have to fake it (till he makes it)?
-13 syllables in line 528 when talking about what he has heard
    -This source could be questionable, why does Hamlet suddenly trust it more than the ghost of his       father?
    -Questions the credibility of the actor's passion, Hamlet's passion, and the ghost's

III.1.56 (Page 65)
-The "question" is uncertain
-Death is not a "resolution"(84) - feminine ending;uncertain
-Hamlet seeks resolution like his father; Hamlet knows he may not get resolution from death, like his father, especially if he doesn't avenge him
-Is revenge resolution?

III.3.381 (Page 83)
-iamb + spondee on  "I drink hot blood" - Hamlet is ready to act; he is heated
-feminine ending on "mother (385)
     -His mother is weak by contrast
     -Is Hamlet weaker or stronger than his mother? That could be an interesting comparision
-Feminine endings on lines 385-389.
     -Is Hamlet weak against his own will? Does he struggle to hold himself back against his mother?
     -Could this be used for the Oedipal argument?

III.3.73 (Page 86)
-Why does Hamlet say "I am revenged" with a stress on "I"? (75)
-Again on line 84
     -Why is this suddenly about Hamlet being revenged and not his father?
     -This is definitely good evidence for the Oedipal argument
-Fem. ending on Claudius' "passage" (86)
     -maybe his passage will be incomplete like Hamlet Sr.'s
     -Maybe Hamlet's passage would be incomplete if he killed Claudius at this time
     -Does Hamlet fear death because he fears being a ghost? This could support an argument that Hamlet is the only one who sees the ghost, because it comes from his fear/paranoia of death
-WHY doesn't Hamlet kill Claudius?

IV.4.32 (Page 103)
-Hamlet wants to be active - iamb + spondee on "A beast, no more"
-Also support with his envy of the actor on pg. 60

So I'm wondering whether I should go with the Oedipal claim and see if I could support that.  But let me know if you guys see any connections that I may be missing.